by curling_grad on 4/10/23, 7:46 AM with 94 comments
by ndsipa_pomu on 4/10/23, 12:07 PM
The classic case would be if mathematicians wanted to assign a value to division by zero. It turns out that if you do allow that to take a value, then it becomes possible to "prove" that any number is equal to any other number. Quite simply, it makes maths less interesting to allow that, but instead having division by zero be undefined appears far more useful/interesting.
by ubj on 4/10/23, 11:13 AM
It seems contradictory, but the resulting theory is very useful for automatic differentiation [2] and for mechanics (dual quaternions) [3].
[1]: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dual_number
[2]: https://book.sciml.ai/notes/08-Forward-Mode_Automatic_Differ...
by heinrichhartman on 4/10/23, 12:23 PM
Given any polynomial P (e.g. x^2 + 1) over a filed F (e.g. reals) we can form: `R = F[X]/P`
This is an algebraic "set" that supports addition, substraction, multiplication and has 0,1 but not division in general. Elements are elements of F and a new symbol X that satisfies "P(X) = 0".
Examples:
R[X]/(x^2 + 1) = C
R[X]/x = R
C[X]/(x^2 + 1) = C + C.x
R[X]/1 = 0
# Properties- If the polynomial P is invertible, i.e. has degree 0 and is not zero, then the resulting ring is zero R[X]/P = 0. This is what happens in the example x = x-1 (which corresponds to P = x - 1 - x = -1).
- If the polynomial P has degree 1 (i.e. P=aX+b), then the equation P=0 is equivalent to x=-b/a, representing an element already present in R, hence the ring R[X]/P is equal to R.
- If the polynomial P is irreducible (i.e. not a product of two proper polynomials) then the quotient R[X]/P is a field. This happens in the case R[x]/(x^2 + 1) which results in the complex numbers.
- If the polynomial P is a product of two polynomials P1,P2 which don't have common divisors, then R[X]/P = R[X]/P1 + R[X]/P2, this happens in the case that C[X]/(x^2+1), since P = x^2 + 1 factors as (x+i)*(x-i) in C. The equivalent result for integers is known as Chinese Remainder Theorem.
by InfiniteRand on 4/10/23, 12:55 PM
by legosexmagic on 4/10/23, 12:18 PM
1/0 is maybe a bit trickier and leads you to invent projective spaces.
by orblivion on 4/10/23, 10:27 PM
by devit on 4/11/23, 1:20 PM
For example, by adding the imaginary numbers, there is no longer an ordering compatible with addition and multiplication (ordering compatible with multiplication means that z > 0 and x > y implies x * z > y * z: assuming that, if 0 < i, then 0 = 0 * i < i * i = -1, absurd, or if 0 > i and thus 0 < -i, then 0 = 0 * -i < -i * -i = -1, absurd).
You can certainly add a number x such that x = x + 1 (e.g. what is commonly called an infinity or NaN), but that implies no longer having additive left inverses assuming you keep associativity of addition and 0 != 1 (since otherwise 0 = -x + x = -x + (x + 1) = (-x + x) + 1 = 0 + 1 = 1).
by AstixAndBelix on 4/10/23, 12:38 PM
by rain1 on 4/10/23, 9:38 AM
every polynomial with algebraic coefficients has 'n' solutions (counted with multiplicity)!
so e.g. x^121 + sqrt(7)x^9 + fithroot(22)x^7 + (1+i)x^3 + 22/7 = 0 has 121 solutions. and they're all algebraic numbers: nothing weird like pi in there.