by pliny on 7/4/20, 10:47 PM with 11 comments
by antimetropic on 7/5/20, 3:43 AM
by dang on 7/5/20, 2:09 AM
by hermitcrab on 7/5/20, 7:39 AM
by joe_the_user on 7/5/20, 7:07 AM
Newton and Leibniz separately discovered calculus but the calculus they created had no rigorous basis - it took until the middle of 19th century to formulate the axiomatic system that calculus is framed in today.
So it's natural Newton would want to write his results in a form that was rigorous and unassailable. But this meant that, as Keynes says, the final form didn't bear a relationship to intuition it was taken from.